Oracle has acquired 44% of i-flex stocks.
http://www.rediff.com/money/2005/jul/25oracle.htm
I would like to know the difference between the take over and acquiring majority of
stocks. (or both are same).what would be the difference b/w the people soft and this
case, as for as oracle is concerned. will it get full admnistrative, authoritative
control in both the cases?
anyone knows the answer please comment...?
4 comments:
This is where an MBA enters the picture .... ;-)
The takeover regulations and politics are very complicated and vary from country to country ....
To keep it simple .. the difference between PeopleSoft and I-Flex for Oracle is that PeopleSoft's Board rejected the proposed takeover ... making Oracle's intentions hostile ... Oracle had to increase its offer price to make PeopleSoft's shareholders accept the acquisition ....
As far as control goes, if you have more than 50% of shares, you will most probably be able to pass any of the changes you want to make, effectively taking control of the organisation ...
applettu,
I did not expect a "most probably" kinda answer from an IIM grad....
just kidding da ;-)...
thanks for ur explanation
I would not expect anything other than a 'most probably' answer from an MBA. I'm not kidding da ;-)..
even 'most probably' is not expected from an MBA. Anand has not matured yet. When he matures, he won't use anything more than 'possible' or 'probable' or 'could be that' or 'sometimes it has been observed that ...'
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